October 24, 20205 yr Hi everyone, I’ve probably what may be a very stupid question. I’ve got a cottage in Scotland with a ridge beam and above it what looks like a ridge board , so in effect an inverted T ,I am just curious as to why a building would have both when I’ve only encountered buildings with one or the other. It was built in 1760 !
October 24, 20205 yr Perhaps it was built with just a ridge board but the roof was found to be inadequate and was spreading, so the ridge beam was added later to strengthen it. A lot of old buildings like that were built with whatever was available rather than to "best design"
October 24, 20205 yr Author 54 minutes ago, ProDave said: Perhaps it was built with just a ridge board but the roof was found to be inadequate and was spreading, so the ridge beam was added later to strengthen it. A lot of old buildings like that were built with whatever was available rather than to "best design" That makes perfect sense ,I should have asked the structural engineer I had out there a while back about it ,he informed me that the beam was supporting the rafters and stopping the walls from spreading at the time as I was asking about rafter ties. I am just curious that’s all! Thanks for the reply.
Create an account or sign in to comment