Liamm Posted October 24, 2020 Share Posted October 24, 2020 Hi everyone, I’ve probably what may be a very stupid question. I’ve got a cottage in Scotland with a ridge beam and above it what looks like a ridge board , so in effect an inverted T ,I am just curious as to why a building would have both when I’ve only encountered buildings with one or the other. It was built in 1760 ! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ProDave Posted October 24, 2020 Share Posted October 24, 2020 Perhaps it was built with just a ridge board but the roof was found to be inadequate and was spreading, so the ridge beam was added later to strengthen it. A lot of old buildings like that were built with whatever was available rather than to "best design" Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Liamm Posted October 24, 2020 Author Share Posted October 24, 2020 54 minutes ago, ProDave said: Perhaps it was built with just a ridge board but the roof was found to be inadequate and was spreading, so the ridge beam was added later to strengthen it. A lot of old buildings like that were built with whatever was available rather than to "best design" That makes perfect sense ,I should have asked the structural engineer I had out there a while back about it ,he informed me that the beam was supporting the rafters and stopping the walls from spreading at the time as I was asking about rafter ties. I am just curious that’s all! Thanks for the reply. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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